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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 26.06.2025 03:23

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

How long will it take for Canada and the US to become close friends and allies again once the tariff problem is resolved?

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.